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USER COMMENTS BY “ JOHN UK ”
RECENTLY-COMMENTED SERMONS | MoreLast PostTotal
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· Page 1 ·  Found: 500 user comments posted recently.
News Item2/19/2020 3:41 PM
John UK  Find all comments by John UK
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Unprofitable Servant wrote:
Thanks John for your response. At no point have I said that saving faith is not a gift from God. I am saying that is not the message of Ephesians 2:8 specifically
Brother, in that case, what makes you think that saving faith is a gift from God? By proof text or a general consensus throughout the whole Bible?

News Item2/19/2020 1:38 PM
John UK  Find all comments by John UK
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Adriel wrote:
Good Afternoon John;
No! Happily We live on the top of a hill.
So the water all runs down to the folks at the bottom.
Ha! I lived on top of a hill once, for about three years, overlooking the Vale of Taunton in Somerset. It was most wonderful. Plenty of fresh air, great views for miles around. But often very windy. The only water was from a well dug in the front garden.

News Item2/19/2020 11:54 AM
John UK  Find all comments by John UK
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Dr. Tim wrote:
I often do err, John, but rarely do I err by trying to make scripture fit my beliefs rather than adjusting my beliefs to fit scripture. This is the fatal flaw in Reformed theology. If the scripture doesn’t mean what the system teaches, just change the meaning until it works.
Doc, if a professing Christian has to bend the scripture to make it fit what they already believe, then that person is not sincere. They are dishonest and most likely a pseudo-Christian. Honest Christians accept the many seeming paradoxes of the Bible, things which system theologians will never agree to, no matter what I say to them.

Oh, and there are very, very few professing Christians who are not system theologians, of the same ilk as Bishop John Ryle, for example.


News Item2/19/2020 10:07 AM
John UK  Find all comments by John UK
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Doc, let me think out loud on this.

John 4:10 KJV
(10)  Jesus answered and said unto her, If thou knewest the gift of God, and who it is that saith to thee, Give me to drink; thou wouldest have asked of him, and he would have given thee living water.

The gift of God here is Jesus himself, in all his offices and purposes.

Acts 8:20 KJV
(20)  But Peter said unto him, Thy money perish with thee, because thou hast thought that the gift of God may be purchased with money.

The gift of God here is the Holy Ghost and all his gifts, given to whomsoever the Lord chooses.

Romans 6:23 KJV
(23)  For the wages of sin is death; but the gift of God is eternal life through Jesus Christ our Lord.

Here the gift is eternal life.

1 Corinthians 7:7 KJV
(7)  For I would that all men were even as I myself. But every man hath his proper gift of God, one after this manner, and another after that.

Gifts either of nature or of grace, all comes from God.

Ephesians 2:8 KJV
(8)  For by grace are ye saved through faith; and that not of yourselves: it is the gift of God:

Here the gift is saving faith, which results in the gift of eternal life, showing that it is ALL of grace, not partly of grace, as the RCC would have it.

Methinks you err, bro.


News Item2/19/2020 8:58 AM
John UK  Find all comments by John UK
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Unprofitable Servant wrote:
The Greek, which is what it was it was written in, does not agree
https://hermeneutics.stackexchange.com/questions/2249/what
Bro US, I see that others of the highbrow variety, are also engaged in a similar thing. I am not able to wade through such a quagmire of intellectual stuff.

But let me ask a question. Is saving faith a gift from God to elect sinners?

If you say it isn't, then how did the sinner who got saved come by faith? Was it by convincing (showing him a miracle in Jesus name)? Or by the mystical power of the word of God (a living word which gives faith to some but not to others)? How is it that you believed on Christ but not all your relatives? Is the Spirit really necessary to bring people to faith? If so, why?

Of course, if the answer to the first question is yes, then all the other questions are redundant.


News Item2/19/2020 8:43 AM
John UK  Find all comments by John UK
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Mike wrote:
Instead of saying "that saved" and rightly pointing out it makes no sense, let's say "that" refers to being saved by grace through faith that is the gift. Why? Because being saved by grace through faith is not of works. v9. That makes sense, no
It makes sense, Mike. Thank you. Bit complicated though, to be true.

Dr. Tim wrote:
When we consider that it is difficult if not impossible to translate from one language to another in a way that is grammatically “perfect,” John (consider the unclear antecedents in Psalm 37:23), #2 actually makes perfect sense, especially considering that in every other instance where the phrase “the gift of God” is used in the New Testament it refers either to the gift of salvation or the gift of the Holy Ghost.
Doc, "gift of God" in the NT is found six times in the KJV, and refers to various different gifts, as though the phrase does not refer to one specific gift, such as "eternal life", "the Holy Spirit", "faith" etc. So although I appreciate your argument, I do not believe it strong enough.

"...through faith; and THAT (i.e. that faith)" It seems clear to me, always has done. The fact that it comes out on the Reformed side is irrelevant.


News Item2/19/2020 3:19 AM
John UK  Find all comments by John UK
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Phobias are real and need diagnosis. Sinners will always be against the preaching of the Bible because they have only been born once, they have not the Spirit, and are spiritually dead; they live on the lower plains of life, like brute beasts. They want their sin without being reminded that it is sin. And as Franklin so often points out, that means all sin, not pointing the finger at any particular sin, but all sin, which is punishable by death and eternal separation from God in hell.

News Item2/19/2020 3:11 AM
John UK  Find all comments by John UK
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Ephesians 2:8-9 KJV
(8)  For by grace are ye saved through faith; and that not of yourselves: it is the gift of God:
(9)  Not of works, lest any man should boast.

Similar to what St James said earlier, it is necessary simply to look at the sentence construction: what is THAT referring to? It is either:-

1. grace (that grace)
2. saved (that saved)
3. faith (that faith)

Obviously we can remove number 2 because it makes no sense. We can also remove number 1 because we acknowledge that the grace is referring to the grace of God, which is God showing undeserved favour. Therefore, "that not of yourselves" must refer to "faith", which is the gift of God to the sinner; it is a work of the Spirit of Jesus, who is the author and finisher of our "faith".

To those who believe salvation is the gift, well it could have been if the text had said, "For by grace ye have salvation through faith; and that not of yourselves: it is the gift of God". But it doesn't so it cannot be.
_______________

Thank you Sister B for pointing that out about the blasphemer. I find it most distasteful to have to read such comments about Jesus on the thread. I call it demon dribble - from the pit of hell.


News Item2/19/2020 2:51 AM
John UK  Find all comments by John UK
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Adriel wrote:
John UK
Have you been caught up in the floods down there?
Good morning Adriel,

No, thankfully we hardly ever get floods down here in Pembrokeshire. We don't have many rivers, only estuaries.

What about you, bro?


News Item2/16/2020 11:36 AM
John UK  Find all comments by John UK
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[Christ is the propitiation to God for sin; which must be understood of his making satisfaction to divine justice, for the sins of his people; these were imputed to him, and being found on him, the law and justice of God made demands on him for them; which he answered to satisfaction, by his obedience and sacrifice; and which, as it could not be done by any other, nor in any other way, is expressed by "reconciliation", and "atonement": whence God may be said to be pacified, or made propitious; not but that he always loved his people, and never hated them; nor is there, nor can there be any change in God, from hatred to love, any more than from love to hatred: Christ has not, by his sacrifice and death, procured the love and favour of God, but has removed the obstructions which lay in the way of love's appearing and breaking forth; there was, a law broken, and justice provoked, which were to be attended to, and Christ by his sacrifice has satisfied both; so that neither the wrath of God, nor any of the effects of it, can fall upon the persons Christ is the propitiation for, even according to justice itself; so that it is not love, but justice that is made propitious: for this is all owing to the grace and goodness of God, who "hath set him forth", for this intent...]

News Item2/16/2020 10:24 AM
John UK  Find all comments by John UK
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To understand scripture, sometimes it is necessary to understand common useage of terms.

John 12:19 KJV
(19)  The Pharisees therefore said among themselves, Perceive ye how ye prevail nothing? behold, the world is gone after him.

The world here does not mean the world.

Duh.

"the Vulgate Latin, Syriac, Arabic, and Ethiopic versions read, "the whole world", and so Nonnus; the Persic version, "all the people"; that is, a very great number of people; for they could not mean, that all the inhabitants of the world, or every individual of mankind were followers of him, and became his disciples, nor even all in their own land; they themselves, with multitudes more of the same complexion, were an exception to this: but they speak in the common dialect of that nation." Gill

"This is a very common form of expression among the Jews, and simply answers to the French, tout le monde, and to the English, everybody - the bulk of the people. Many MSS., versions, and fathers, add ὁλος, the whole world." Adam Clarke

John, tell me what you understand a propitiation to be, which you say Jesus is for the whole world.


News Item2/16/2020 9:08 AM
John UK  Find all comments by John UK
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1 John 2:2 KJV
(2)  And he is the propitiation for our sins: and not for ours only, but also for the sins of the whole world.

'but also for the sins of the whole world'; the Syriac version renders it, "not for us only, but also for the whole world"; that is, not for the Jews only, for John was a Jew, and so were those he wrote unto, but for the Gentiles also. Nothing is more common in Jewish writings than to call the Gentiles עלמא, "the world"; and כל העולם, "the whole world"; and אומות העולם, "the nations of the world" (l); See Gill on John 12:19; and the word "world" is so used in Scripture; see Joh_3:16; and stands opposed to a notion the Jews have of the Gentiles, that אין להן כפרה, "there is no propitiation for them" (m): and it is easy to observe, that when this phrase is not used of the Gentiles, it is to be understood in a limited and restrained sense; as when they say (n),
"it happened to a certain high priest, that when he went out of the sanctuary, כולי עלמא, "the whole world" went after him;'' which could only design the people in the temple.

And elsewhere (o) it is said,
"amle ylwk, "the "whole world" has left the Misna, and gone after the "Gemara";''
which at most can only intend the Jews; and indeed only a majority of their doctors... [Gill]


News Item2/16/2020 5:34 AM
John UK  Find all comments by John UK
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Matthew 25:46 KJV
(46)  And these shall go away into everlasting punishment: but the righteous into life eternal.

These are the two destinations all men must arrive at eventually: eternal life or eternal punishment.

Why do some have eternal life? Is it because of something they did? Not at all, it is because of something Jesus did on their behalf.

John 10:11 KJV
(11)  I am the good shepherd: the good shepherd giveth his life for the sheep.

Note, v11 is all about the cross, where Jesus gave his life on behalf of all those he calls sheep. As far as God is concerned, the cross is outside of time in regard to its effect. So an atoning sacrifice is made for 1. sheep who have already lived and died, 2. sheep who are alive at the time of the crucifixion, 3. sheep who are yet future. Notice that the cross is for the benefit of only those whom Jesus calls sheep.

Now if the Lord Jesus is going to stand in the place of those sinners, bearing their sins, he must needs bear the whole wrath of God against those sins, in order to satisfy divine justice and make forgiveness possible. That wrath is eternal, and so we must hold our hand up and say that although we believe it, we cannot understand how Jesus could suffer eternal wrath at Calvary.


News Item2/15/2020 2:42 PM
John UK  Find all comments by John UK
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Hebrews 9:27-28 KJV
(27)  And as it is appointed unto men once to die, but after this the judgment:
(28)  So Christ was once offered to bear the sins of many; and unto them that look for him shall he appear the second time without sin unto salvation.

There will always be those who cannot cope with the doctrine of eternal punishment, and they tend to create their own make-believe doctrine to counter it. It goes like this.

Christ died in the place of all sinners. Because of their sins, they all deserved death. This death is the cessation of life - body and soul. Therefore to save sinners by dying in their place, Jesus had to cease living, which he did on the cross. Thusly, his death became the means of saving anyone, anywhere, so that they would go to heaven. Sinners who died without Christ would simply die and cease to exist.

But! Ceasing to live is not what Jesus did on the cross for all men. His work was limited. How so? Check the text above: "Christ was once offered to bear the sins of many". This was no mere "death", but a judgment upon definite sins.

The false doctrine of annihilation cannot exist when it is clear that Jesus died for some, bearing their sins (that is, the wrath of God upon their sins).


News Item2/15/2020 9:48 AM
John UK  Find all comments by John UK
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1 Peter 2:24 KJV
(24)  Who his own self bare our sins in his own body on the tree, that we, being dead to sins, should live unto righteousness: by whose stripes ye were healed.

[The apostle here explains the nature and end of Christ's sufferings, which were to make atonement for sins, and which was done by bearing them. What Christ bore were "sins", even all sorts of sin, original and actual, and every act of sin of his people; and all that is in sin, all that belongs to it, arises from it, and is the demerit of it, as both filth, guilt, and punishment; and a multitude of sins did he bear, even all the iniquities of all the elect; and a prodigious load and weight it was; and than which nothing could be more nauseous and disagreeable to him, who loves righteousness, and hates iniquity: and these sins he bore were not his own, nor the sins of angels, but of men; and not of all men, yet of many, even as many as were ordained to eternal life, for whom Christ gave his life a ransom, whom he justifies and brings to glory.] Gill

This is the guaranteed redemption of the elect of God; he bore their sins, and they shall never perish.


News Item2/15/2020 8:23 AM
John UK  Find all comments by John UK
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1 Peter 2:24 KJV
(24)  Who his own self bare our sins in his own body on the tree, that we, being dead to sins, should live unto righteousness: by whose stripes ye were healed.

[Bare our sins - There is an allusion here undoubtedly to Isa_53:4, Isa_53:12. See the meaning of the phrase “to bear sins” fully considered in the notes at those places. As this cannot mean that Christ so took upon himself the sins of people as to become himself a sinner, it must mean that he put himself in the place of sinners, and bore that which those sins deserved; that is, that he endured in his own person that which, if it had been inflicted on the sinner himself, would have been a proper expression of the divine displeasure against sin, or would have been a proper punishment for sin. See the notes at 2Co_5:21. He was treated as if he had been a sinner, in order that we might be treated as if we had not sinned; that is, as if we were righteous. There is no other way in which we can conceive that one bears the sins of another. They cannot be literally transferred to another; and all that can be meant is, that he should take the consequences on himself, and suffer as if he had committed the transgressions himself.] Barnes


News Item2/15/2020 5:19 AM
John UK  Find all comments by John UK
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Carol wrote:
Reverend is to be used only in reference to the Lord God Almighty, not as a title for.sinful proud worms.
Psalm 111:9....holy and reverend is His Name.

Adriel wrote:
I am glad to see that Franklin is going ahead with his tour.
Whilst I cannot agree with all his theology, I do believe that the society of Britain is hypocritical in denying free speech and freedom of religion.
Yes indeed. And I also agree that the wrath of God is upon this nation for its wickedness in departing from the living God.

News Item2/15/2020 5:18 AM
John UK  Find all comments by John UK
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J4 wrote:
The cross proves Jesus was sinless and didn’t take on the culpability of anyone else’s sin or else He would not have been raised. He would still be under judgement. He was called the spotless lamb for a reason! It seems to me to be a system of works to say that you are saved because of what God did in paying the punishment for your sins.
J4 wrote:
In the same way, Jesus suffered death for our sins...
Well some would see an improvement there, but the reality is that there is nothing but confusion. There is no consistency, merely chopping and changing when it suits the argument being attempted.

The cross is central to Christianity. The blood is needful for salvation. A substitute is required. There must be a satisfaction for sin made to the law giver, the Judge. A penalty must be paid. Someone who is just must die in the place of others who are unjust. Condemnation through Adam must be remedied by justification through Christ.

Men and women, boys and girls, irrespective of age, are either "in Adam" or they are "in Christ", and there is no mitigation.


News Item2/14/2020 3:24 PM
John UK  Find all comments by John UK
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Mike wrote:
John, a minor observation. In John 17:9, this particular prayer at that moment in time is for the eleven. John 17:12 is fair evidence. It isn't until 17:20 that Jesus prays for others, those being the ones who would believe in him through hearing the word brought to them by the ones he was praying for in v9.
Mike, that is a very fair point - thank you, bro.

John 17:20 KJV
(20)  Neither pray I for these alone, but for them also which shall believe on me through their word;

Here, the Lord is still not praying for the world, but for those who will come to him and be saved.

"...hence our Lord knew that there would be a number, in all successive generations, that would believe in him, through the ministry of the word; and for these persons, and their conversion, and the success of the Gospel, to the good of their souls, he prays." John Gill

I believe Mike, that my point still stands, for it would not make sense for the Lord Jesus to pray only for some in the world (those who would believe) if his love extended to all men everywhere in the world.

So the Lord only prayed in the will of God, rather than asking him to save all men.

This is my thinking on the matter, anyway.


News Item2/14/2020 10:07 AM
John UK  Find all comments by John UK
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Joel wrote:
Who in the world is Kathy Vestal?
Kathy Vestal was a bag lady who was arrested and charged in Southampton, England, in 1991, for stealing milk and newspapers off people's doorsteps. She became very learned ( ) through reading the newspapers, and it is said that her face became extremely pale and white on account of excessive milk drinking. Anyway, she got six months inside, and unfortunately died of heart failure due to milk withdrawal symptoms. Or am I thinking of Cathy Vestibule?
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