In this sermon, I give a fair amount of background to support the view that some of the NT prophecies were fulfilled in the first century in the destruction of Jerusalem in 70 AD. When the apostle John said (in the first century) that it was the last hour, did he mean that the world's end was imminent? If so, how could he be right? 2,000 years later and we are still here. What John meant was that it was the last hour of the Jewish state. Their destruction was imminent and the proof for it was that many antichrists had already appeared. This doesn't fit with modern popular eschatology, but it does fit better with the overall New Testament teaching.
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