Most of us would say it is a matter of conscience. We know Tyndale coined the english translation Passover and Easter. He used both. We know that many wrongly use Alexander Hyslop to reference why Easter is pagan and also Ralph Woodrow, but Woodrow saw he was mistaken and later refuted his own work.
We can hardly claim Answers In Genesis are KJVO, yet the article gives reason what easterlamb meant to Tyndale and Luther, and do we believe for one second that Tyndale thought of a connection to paganism when he translated Acts 12.4.
If we know what he meant by Easter, then we have little problem, but he must have had good reason when he reached this first post resurrection example in Acts.
I can read it with a good conscience and not celebrate a pagan Easter, or even an unscriptural one.
Depends what you think the word really means as translated so by Tyndale, and why you think he is mistaken.