The Lord’s day is a New Testament term (Rev. 1:10). But what is it? Was John talking of a prophetical day – the day of the Lord – or the first day of the week? And if he was referring to the first day of the week, known by believers as ‘the Lord’s day’, was it a day which was subject to a command or a thing indifferent (Rom. 14:1-6)? Or what?
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