In light of the previous verses in chapter three it would seem that perhaps the Jew is better off when it comes to escaping God's wrath. Paul asked, what shall we conclude then? and, Are we any better? The exact meaning of this Greek verb proechometha (better, and used only here in the NT) has stymied commentators for many years. It is not certain whether the Greek verb in the second question should be translated as a passive or in an active sense. It seems best to take the question as coming from Jewish readers to whom Paul has just been writing and to translate it, "Are we preferred?" Paul answers no, because sin has brought everyone to the same level. In this section Paul concluded not only his indictment of the Jews but he had already shown that all have sinned. Better off the Jews certainly were, for having the oracles of God to teach them better but only in a limited sense because of God's blessings to them. But, standing before the bar of the Law of God as to salvation and sinfulness they were no better, because that special blessing only aggravated their guilt. Now the question concludes with, was the Jew better off than the Gentile? The answer is, "The Jew was neither better off nor at a disadvantage since it has already been established that both Jews and Gentiles, that they are all under sin (I Kings 8:46; Galatians 3:22).
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