How was it possible that the death of Jesus Christ could pay the penalty for sins of those who died before His sacrifice on the cross? How could an event occurring over 4000 years after creation ever pay the penalty of faithful believers who died thousands of years before? The WCF in 8.6 states: 8.6. Although the work of redemption was not actually wrought by Christ till after His incarnation, yet the virtue, efficacy, and benefits thereof were communicated unto the elect, in all ages successively from the beginning of the world, in and by those promises, types, and sacrifices, wherein He was revealed, and signified to be the seed of the woman which should bruise the serpent’s head; and the Lamb slain from the beginning of the world; being yesterday and today the same, and forever. I want to first answer the question that I raised – how could the death of Christ be sufficient for all time? Second, we will consider again the light of the gospel message given to OT saints. It was not as glorious as what we now enjoy but entirely sufficient so that they would place their faith in the redemption that God would accomplish in Christ. What comfort in knowing the all-sufficient nature of the death of Jesus Christ for all time!
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