The question was put to Jesus by the Pharisees as to whether a man could lawfully divorce his wife for any cause (Matthew 19:3). The Pharisees claimed that Moses (Deuteronomy 24:1) granted a divorce for any cause so long as he gave his wife a bill of divorcement. Jesus reproved that false interpretation by saying that Moses wrote of just one cause (or exception) for divorce (not just any cause): fornication, sexual immorality (Matthew 5:32; Matthew 19:9). What Jesus denied was divorce for any cause, not divorce for one cause. What God has lawfully joined together, let no man unlawfully put asunder for just any cause. Jesus addresses the lawfulness of divorce in Matthew 5:31-32 and Matthew 19:1-9, but does He also address the lawfulness of remarriage in these passages and elsewhere in Scripture? This is very important question, for if there is no lawful remarriage, they are all adulterous relationships. What saith the Scriptures?
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