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Great Sermon! Dr. Spiros Zodhiates gives his understanding of Matt 5:31, 32 by paraphrasing in the English language, which we less technical folks can grasp, as he gives an exegetical rendering of these two pivotal verses as follows:
Matthew 5:31- 32: “And it was said, If a licentious person dismisses his own wife, let him give her a bill of divorcement (so she can remarry). But I say unto you that he who (the licentious person who lusts after another woman, married, divorced, or unmarried) dismisses his own wife but for the reason of fornication
(sexual infidelity on her part) causes adultery against her (makes her appear as if she were put away because of her sexual infidelity), and he who marries a woman who has been thus dismissed assumes upon himself the stigma of adultery which she has borne from the moment her husband unjustifiably dismissed her without giving her a divorce.”
He has said it in a way that I believe reflects the true meaning of the verses you asked about. I use the KJV and believe it to be correct, but sometimes our familiarity with our current usage of the English language may cause us to struggle as we attempt to understand some passages that are not faulty in themselves.
Thanks for asking a great question!
I C Irony (4/14/2014)
from The Far West
Great Sermon! Question:
Matthew 5:32 says that the woman divorced for fornication does not commit adultery if she remarries another man and the man who marries her does not commit adultery. On the other hand the woman who is not guilty of fornication, commits adultery if she remarries another man and the man who marries her commits adultery. Is this a correct interpretation?
After four years of college, serving as an associate pastor in two different churches, with 16 years of ministry completed, planting a new church in Searcy was an exciting adventure, but not an easy one. In all honesty, my education in Bible college was just the beginning of my...